Hithpael imperatives are identical to the hithpael infinitives - for the word that you utilised it would be התנצל ('hitnatzel'), with the inclusion of the ה (as mentioned before in relation to השתגל). Hithpaels, hiphils and niphals are the only stems to see this inclusion of a ה although it should also be noted that hophals never appear in the imperative in the Bible but that if they did they would have most probably been formed on analogy with the hiphil.
Jussives are often shortened forms, but this is most often evident if the word is a III-heh, in which case the ה disappears. So for √bnh, for example, the imperative is בנה ('bneh') but the third-person jussive is יבן ('yiben'). You can thus generally tell the difference between jussives and imperfectives but not always. You could probably argue, I suppose, that they are the same thing: conceptually the jussive is a function of the imperfective anyway, right?
Without wanting to suddenly make this thread overly complicated, I would imagine that we are dealing with two broad classes: Imperatives (with a capital I) and Volitives. The imperatives (that is, with a lower-case i) belong in the class of Imperatives, while jussives (depending on their function) can either belong in Imperatives or in Volitives. The Volitives themselves (which also, I guess include the prohibitives which are simply jussives plus a negative adverb) are also within the even broader category of Imperfectives, along with all of the regular imperfective verbs.
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timeasmymeasure
Re: Ah, swearing in Hebrew...
Date: 2006-10-01 01:30 am (UTC)Hithpael imperatives are identical to the hithpael infinitives - for the word that you utilised it would be התנצל ('hitnatzel'), with the inclusion of the ה (as mentioned before in relation to השתגל). Hithpaels, hiphils and niphals are the only stems to see this inclusion of a ה although it should also be noted that hophals never appear in the imperative in the Bible but that if they did they would have most probably been formed on analogy with the hiphil.
Jussives are often shortened forms, but this is most often evident if the word is a III-heh, in which case the ה disappears. So for √bnh, for example, the imperative is בנה ('bneh') but the third-person jussive is יבן ('yiben'). You can thus generally tell the difference between jussives and imperfectives but not always. You could probably argue, I suppose, that they are the same thing: conceptually the jussive is a function of the imperfective anyway, right?
Without wanting to suddenly make this thread overly complicated, I would imagine that we are dealing with two broad classes: Imperatives (with a capital I) and Volitives. The imperatives (that is, with a lower-case i) belong in the class of Imperatives, while jussives (depending on their function) can either belong in Imperatives or in Volitives. The Volitives themselves (which also, I guess include the prohibitives which are simply jussives plus a negative adverb) are also within the even broader category of Imperfectives, along with all of the regular imperfective verbs.
Does that make sense?